Cisco CCNA 3 Version 4.0 - Exploration Module 1  

Posted by Glaiza A. Taytay

  1.  Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical? 

    access layer 
    core layer 
    data-link layer 
    distribution layer 
    network layer 
    physical layer 


  1. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network? 

    application 
    access 
    distribution 
    network 
    core 


  1. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)? 

    application 
    access 
    distribution 
    network 
    core 

  1. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network? 

    Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers. 
    The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex. 
    A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage. 
    QoS issues are greatly reduced. 
    There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams. 


  1. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network? 

    core only 
    distribution and core 
    access and distribution 
    access, distribution, and core 


  1. What statement best describes a modular switch? 

    a slim-line chassis 
    allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane 
    defined physical characteristics 
    flexible characteristics 


  1. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports? 

    convergence 
    redundant links 
    link aggregation 
    network diameter 

  1. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model? 

    Layer 1 
    Layer 3 
    Layer 4 
    Layer 5


  1. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.) 

    low port density 
    high forwarding rate 
    high latency level 
    support link aggregation 
    predefined number of ports 

  1. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.) 

    Power over Ethernet 
    load balancing across redundant trunk links 
    redundant components 
    Quality of Service 
    link aggregation
     


  1. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.) 

    port security 
    security policies 
    10 Gigabit Ethernet 
    quality of service (QoS) 
    hot-swappable hardware
     
    Power over Ethernet (PoE) 

  1. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure? 

    PoE 
    redundancy 
    aggregation 
    access lists 


  1. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed? 

    core layer 
    distribution layer 
    access layer 
    entry layer 


  1. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network? 

    Power over Ethernet 
    quality of service 
    switch port security 
    inter-VLAN routing 

  1. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles? 
    (OPTION 2?)
    Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2.
    Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load. 
    Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet. 
    Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1. 
    Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1. 


  1.  A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.) 

    forwarding rate 
    traffic flow analysis 
    expected future growth
     
    number of required core connections 
    number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance 

  1. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology? 

    StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth. 
    StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling. 
    StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards. 
    StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane. 


  1.  Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.) 

    security policies 
    Power over Ethernet 
    switch port security 
    quality of service 
    Layer 3 functionality
     
    end user access to network 

  1. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision? 

    Layer 1 
    Layer 2 
    Layer 3 
    Layer 4 


  1. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2? 

    scalability 
    security 
    redundancy 

    maintainability 

Cisco CCNA 1 Version 4.0 - Exploration Module 11  

Posted by Glaiza A. Taytay


This are the questions and answer for Module 11 of Cisco CCNA version 4.0
The Highlight Colors which is Blue is the answer.

1. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
• show running-config
• show startup-config
• show interfaces
• show ip route
• show version
• show memory


2. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?


• enable password class line console 0 password ccna
• enable secret cisco enable password class line console 0 password ccna
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0 enable password class line console 0 password ccna
• enable secret ciscoenable password 7 14141E0A1F17 line console 0 password 7 020507550A
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0 enable password 7 14141E0A1F17 line console 0 password 7 020507550A



3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?


• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
   RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
   RouterB(config-if)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
   RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
   RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
   RouterB(config-vty)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
   RouterB(config)# line vty 0
   RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
   RouterB(config-line)# login

• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
   RouterB(config)# line aux 0
   RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
   RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
   RouterB(config)# line aux 0
   RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
   RouterB(config-vty)# login



4. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?


• Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
• Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router B



5. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?


• Router# name Fontana
• Router# hostname Fontana
• Router(config)# name Fontana
• Router(config)# hostname Fontana



6. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)


• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2



7. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?


• NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
• NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
• NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
• NA-SW1(config-if)# description description



8. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?


• AUX
• Ethernet
• Console
• Telnet
• SSH



9. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?


• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH



10. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?


• after a system restart
• as the commands are entered
• when logging off the system
• when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration



11. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)


• line configuration mode
• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• privileged executive mode
• interface configuration mode
• enable mode



12. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)


• hot keys
• context-check
• context-sensitive
• structured check
• command override
• command syntax check



13. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?


• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-R
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z



14. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?


• UBAMA# configure terminal
• UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
• UBAMA(config)# line console 0
• UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
• UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1



15. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?


• Console Port



16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)


• The host A is turned off.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
• The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
• The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
• The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC



17.  Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)


•show flash
•show NVRAM
•show startup-config
•show running-config

•show version

18.  The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?


•Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
•Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
•Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
•Issue a show interfaces command on router C.


19.In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?


RAM
ROM
•Flash
NVRAM


Cisco CCNA 1 Version 4.0 - Exploration Module 10  

Posted by Glaiza A. Taytay

This are the questions and answer for Module 10 of Cisco CCNA version 4.0 .
The Highlight Colors which is Blue is the answer.

1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

• connecting a PC to a router's console port
• connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
• connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
• connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
• connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds



2. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?


• AUX interface
• Ethernet interface
• serial interface
• console interface



3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)


• greater distances per cable run
• lower installation cost
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• durable connections
• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated



4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?


• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• single-mode fiber
• multimode fiber



5. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?


• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device



6. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?


• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096



7. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?


• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0



8. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?


• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248



9. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?


• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable



10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?


• hub
• switch
• bridge
• router
• repeater



11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?


• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.2.1
• 192.168.2.2
• 192.168.3.1
• 192.168.3.54



12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?


• both host A and B would be successful
• host A would be successful, host B would fail
• host B would be successful, host A would fail
• both Host A and B would fail



13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)


• RJ 11
• DB 60
• Winchester 15 pin

• DB 9
• smart serial
• RJ 45



14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?


• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5



15. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)


• direct configuration of the device
• cable color code association
• cable selection and configuration
• use of cable testers to determine pinouts
• the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
• the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port



16. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)


• They propagate broadcasts.
• They enlarge collision domains.
• They segment broadcast domains.
• They interconnect different network technologies.
• Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.

• They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.



17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?


• router
• hub
• switch
• wireless access point



18. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?


• 1
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7



19. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)


• Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
• Five broadcast domains are present.
• Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.

• Four broadcast domains are present.
• Five networks are shown.
• Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.



20. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?


• crossover cable
• straight through cable
• rollover cable
• V.35 cable



21. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)


• Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
• Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
• Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
• Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
• Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
• Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.



22. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?


• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248



23. Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

•wireless access point
•router
•hub
•switch

Cisco CCNA 1 Version 4.0 - Exploration Module 9  

Posted by Glaiza A. Taytay

This are the questions and answer for Module 9 of Cisco CCNA version 4.0 .
The Highlight Colors which is Blue is the answer.

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.



2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)


• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer



3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)


• the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
• the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame.
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable


4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)


• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting

• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution



5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?


• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.



6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)


• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol.
• makes the connection with the upper layers.

• identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment.
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting



7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?


• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link Control sublayer
• Network layer



8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?


• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.



9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?


• header field - preamble and stop frame
• data field - network layer packet
• data field - physical addressing
• trailer field - FCS and SoF



10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)


• Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
• A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
• A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
• A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.



11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?


• Collisions can decrease network performance.

• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.



12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?


• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access



13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?


• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses



14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?


• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.



15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)


• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.



16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)


• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long

• 32 bits long



17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)


• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications



18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)


• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair



19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.


• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C



20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?


• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time



21. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

Host A will get a result of 172.16.224.0 from the AND process.
•Host A will send on to the media a broadcast frame that contains the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
•Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.
•Host A will encapsulate the packet in a frame with a destination MAC that is the MAC address associated with 172.16.224.1.


Cisco CCNA 1 Version 4.0 - Exploration Module 8  

Posted by Glaiza A. Taytay

This are the questions and answer for Module 8 of Cisco CCNA version 4.0 .

The Highlight Colors which is Blue is the answer.



1. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?


• Presentation
• Transport
• Data Link
• Physical




2. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?



• light injector
• OTDR
• TDR
• multimeter




3. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)



• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
• It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
• It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
• It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.




4. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?



• when connecting a router through the console port
• when connecting one switch to another switch
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a router to another router




5. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?



• coax cable
• rollover cable
• crossover cable
• straight-through cable




6. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?



• electrical
• optical
• wireless
• acoustic




7. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?



• BNC
• RJ-11
• RJ-45
• Type F




8. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?


• generally uses LEDs as the light source
• relatively larger core with multiple light paths
• less expensive than multimode
• generally uses lasers as the light source



9. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?



• backbone cable
• horizontal cable
• patch cable
• work area cable




10. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)



• goodput
• frequency
• amplitude
• throughput
• crosstalk
• bandwidth




11. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?



• the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire

• the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
• the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
• the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously




12. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?



• create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
• provide physical addressing to the devices
• determine the path packets take through the network
• control data access to the media




13. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?



• coax
• fiber
• Cat5e UTP
• Cat6 UTP
• STP




14. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?



• Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
• Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
• An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
• The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.




15. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?



• kolmas




16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?



• more host mobility

• lower security risks
• reduced susceptibility to interference
• less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area




17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?



• the metal braiding in the shielding
• the reflective cladding around core
• the twisting of the wires in the cable
• the insulating material in the outer jacket






18.  XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

coax
•Cat4 UTP
•Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP
•STP