Cisco CCNA 1 Version 4.0 - Exploration Module 10  

Posted by Azailg

This are the questions and answer for Module 10 of Cisco CCNA version 4.0 .
The Highlight Colors which is Blue is the answer.

1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

• connecting a PC to a router's console port
• connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
• connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
• connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
• connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds



2. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?


• AUX interface
• Ethernet interface
• serial interface
• console interface



3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)


• greater distances per cable run
• lower installation cost
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• durable connections
• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated



4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?


• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• single-mode fiber
• multimode fiber



5. What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?


• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device



6. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?


• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096



7. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?


• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0



8. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?


• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248



9. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?


• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable



10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?


• hub
• switch
• bridge
• router
• repeater



11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?


• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.2.1
• 192.168.2.2
• 192.168.3.1
• 192.168.3.54



12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?


• both host A and B would be successful
• host A would be successful, host B would fail
• host B would be successful, host A would fail
• both Host A and B would fail



13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)


• RJ 11
• DB 60
• Winchester 15 pin

• DB 9
• smart serial
• RJ 45



14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?


• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5



15. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)


• direct configuration of the device
• cable color code association
• cable selection and configuration
• use of cable testers to determine pinouts
• the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
• the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port



16. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)


• They propagate broadcasts.
• They enlarge collision domains.
• They segment broadcast domains.
• They interconnect different network technologies.
• Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.

• They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.



17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?


• router
• hub
• switch
• wireless access point



18. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?


• 1
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7



19. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)


• Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
• Five broadcast domains are present.
• Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.

• Four broadcast domains are present.
• Five networks are shown.
• Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.



20. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?


• crossover cable
• straight through cable
• rollover cable
• V.35 cable



21. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)


• Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
• Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
• Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
• Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
• Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
• Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.



22. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?


• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248



23. Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

•wireless access point
•router
•hub
•switch

Cisco CCNA 1 Version 4.0 - Exploration Module 9  

Posted by Azailg

This are the questions and answer for Module 9 of Cisco CCNA version 4.0 .
The Highlight Colors which is Blue is the answer.

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.



2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)


• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer



3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)


• the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
• the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame.
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable


4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)


• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting

• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution



5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?


• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.



6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)


• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol.
• makes the connection with the upper layers.

• identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment.
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting



7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?


• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link Control sublayer
• Network layer



8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?


• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.



9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?


• header field - preamble and stop frame
• data field - network layer packet
• data field - physical addressing
• trailer field - FCS and SoF



10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)


• Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
• A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
• A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
• A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.



11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?


• Collisions can decrease network performance.

• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.



12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?


• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access



13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?


• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses



14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?


• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.



15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)


• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.



16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)


• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long

• 32 bits long



17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)


• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications



18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)


• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair



19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.


• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C



20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?


• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time



21. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

Host A will get a result of 172.16.224.0 from the AND process.
•Host A will send on to the media a broadcast frame that contains the packet.
Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.
•Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.
•Host A will encapsulate the packet in a frame with a destination MAC that is the MAC address associated with 172.16.224.1.


Cisco CCNA 1 Version 4.0 - Exploration Module 8  

Posted by Azailg

This are the questions and answer for Module 8 of Cisco CCNA version 4.0 .

The Highlight Colors which is Blue is the answer.



1. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?


• Presentation
• Transport
• Data Link
• Physical




2. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?



• light injector
• OTDR
• TDR
• multimeter




3. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)



• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
• It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
• It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
• It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.




4. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?



• when connecting a router through the console port
• when connecting one switch to another switch
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a router to another router




5. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?



• coax cable
• rollover cable
• crossover cable
• straight-through cable




6. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?



• electrical
• optical
• wireless
• acoustic




7. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?



• BNC
• RJ-11
• RJ-45
• Type F




8. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?


• generally uses LEDs as the light source
• relatively larger core with multiple light paths
• less expensive than multimode
• generally uses lasers as the light source



9. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?



• backbone cable
• horizontal cable
• patch cable
• work area cable




10. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)



• goodput
• frequency
• amplitude
• throughput
• crosstalk
• bandwidth




11. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?



• the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire

• the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
• the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
• the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously




12. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?



• create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
• provide physical addressing to the devices
• determine the path packets take through the network
• control data access to the media




13. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?



• coax
• fiber
• Cat5e UTP
• Cat6 UTP
• STP




14. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?



• Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
• Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
• An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
• The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.




15. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?



• kolmas




16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?



• more host mobility

• lower security risks
• reduced susceptibility to interference
• less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area




17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?



• the metal braiding in the shielding
• the reflective cladding around core
• the twisting of the wires in the cable
• the insulating material in the outer jacket






18.  XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

coax
•Cat4 UTP
•Cat5 UTP
Cat6 UTP
•STP



Cisco CCNA 1 Version 4.0 - Exploration Module 7  

Posted by Azailg


This are the questions and answer for Module 7 of Cisco CCNA version 4.0 .
The Highlight Colors which is Blue is the answer.

1. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

• the Layer 3 protocol selected
• the geographic scope of the network
• the PDU defined by the transport layer
• the physical layer implementation
• he number of hosts to be interconnected



2. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?


• 00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
• 00-12-3f-32-05-af



3. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)


• non-deterministic
• less overhead

• one station transmits at a time
• collisions exist
• devices must wait their turn
• token passing



4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?


• The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
• Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
• Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
• Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.



5. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)


• Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD

•defined as placement of data frames on the media 
• Contention-based access is also known as deterministic
• 802.11 utilize CSMA/CD
• Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
• controlled access contains data collisions.



6. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)


• Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
• Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
• Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
• Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.



7. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?


• logical topology
• physical topology
• cable path
• wiring grid
• access topology



8. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?


•is used as a pad for data
•identifies the source address
•identifies the destination address
•marks the end of timing information
• is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros



9. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)


• Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card

• Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
• Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
• Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
• Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data


10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

• All three networks use CSMA/CA
• None of the networks require media access control.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
• Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.



11. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?


• 1
• 2
• 4
• 8



12. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)


• source MAC - PC
• source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
• source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
• source IP - PC

• source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
• source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB



13. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?


• LLC
• MAC
• HDLC
• NIC



14. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)


•The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
• The default gateway address should not be changed.
• The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
• Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
• The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.



15. What is a function of the data link layer?


• provides the formatting of data
• provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
• provides delivery of data between two applications
• provides for the exchange data over a common local media



16. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?


• The nodes are physically connected.
• The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
• The media access control protocol can be very simple.
• The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.



17. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?


• provide routes across the internetwork
• format the data for presentation to the user
• facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
• identify the services to which transported data is associated



18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?


• define the logical topology
• provide media access control
• support frame error detection
• carry routing information for the frame



19. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)


• They are 48 binary bits in length.
• They are considered physical addresses.
• They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

• They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
• They are used to determine the data path through the network.
• They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.


20.  What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

•network layer addressing
•media sharing
•application processes
•logical topology
•intermediary device function



Cisco CCNA 1 Version 4.0 - Exploration Module 6  

Posted by Azailg


This are the questions and answer for Module 6 of Cisco CCNA version 4.0 .
The Highlight Colors which is Blue is the answer.

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.

• /24
• /16
• /20
• /27
• /25
• /28




2. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)


• 172.16.4.127 /26
• 172.16.4.155 /26
• 172.16.4.193 /26

• 172.16.4.95 /27
• 172.16.4.159 /27
• 172.16.4.207 /27



3. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)


• NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
• Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
• Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
• IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.



4. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based • upon a given IP address and subnet mask?


• binary adding
• hexadecimal anding
• binary division
• binary multiplication
• binary ANDing



5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?


• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.



6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?


• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0



7. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)


• 172.168.33.1
• 10.35.66.70
• 192.168.99.5
• 172.18.88.90

• 192.33.55.89
• 172.35.16.5



8. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?


• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address.



9. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?


• 172.16.0.0
• 172.16.192.0
• 172.16.192.128
• 172.16.192.160
• 172.16.192.168
• 172.16.192.176



10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?


• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1



11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)


• LAN workstations
• servers
• network printers
• routers

• remote workstations
• laptops



12. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)


• larger address space
• faster routing protocols
• data types and classes of service
• authentication and encryption

• improved host naming conventions
• same addressing scheme as IPv4



13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?


• security
• header format simplification
• expanded addressing capabilities
• addressing simplification



14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)


• The router will discard the packet.
• The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
• The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
• The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.



15. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?


• The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
• Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
• There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
• The default gateway device is not operating.
• A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.



16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?


• 128
• 64
• 48
• 32



17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?


• The router has an incorrect gateway.
• Host A has an overlapping network address.
• Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
• Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
• NAT is required for the host A network.



18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)


• identifies an individual device
• is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
• is altered as packet is forwarded
• varies in length
• is used to forward packets

• uses flat addressing



19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?


• an internet
• a network
• an octet
• a radix
• Bottom of Form
• Top of Form
• Bottom of Form



20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?


• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
• 10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
• 10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000



21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?


• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.252 




22. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)

• 192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
• 192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
• 192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
• 192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
• 192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192
• 192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224



Cisco CCNA 1 Version 4.0 - Exploration Module 5  

Posted by Azailg

This are the questions and answer for Module 5 of Cisco CCNA version 4.0 .
The Highlight Colors which is Blue is the answer.

1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?

• destination network address
• source network address
• source MAC address
• well known port destination address


2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

• source and destination MAC
• source and destination application protocol
• source and destination port number
• source and destination IP address


3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

• The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.


4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

• type-of-service
• identification
• flags
• time-to-live
• header checksum


5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?

• host portion
• broadcast address
• network portion
• gateway address


6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?


• 192.135.250.1
• 192.31.7.1
• 192.133.219.0
• 192.133.219.1


7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.


8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?

• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks


9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

• dynamic
• interior
• static
• standard


10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)


• The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
• The router discards the packet.
• The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
• The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
• The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.


11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)

• gateways
• purpose
• physical addressing
• software version
• geographic location
• ownership


12. What is a component of a routing table entry?

• the MAC address of the interface of the router
• the destination Layer 4 port number
• the destination host address
• the next-hop address


13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)


• router
• hub
• switch
• firewall
• access point
• bridge


14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)

• too few broadcasts
• performance degradation
• security issues

• limited management responsibility
• host identification
• protocol compatibility


15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?

• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7
• 8
•11


16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)

•If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
•If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
• If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
• If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
• If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.

• If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.


17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?

• 10.10.10.26
• 127.0.0.1
• 10.10.10.6
• 10.10.10.1
• 224.0.0.0


18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)


• Replace S2 with a router.
• Place all servers on S1.
• Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
• Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
• Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.


19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)


• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.

• 10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.


20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

• require no device configuration
• provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
• require less processing power than static routes require
• consume bandwidth to exchange route information
• prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table


21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

• A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
• A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
• A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.